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ISTQB-Foundation Level Exam Sample Questions (Q226-Q231):

NEW QUESTION # 226
Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

  • A. Covering all transitions at least once
  • B. Can't be determined
  • C. Covering all states at least once
  • D. Covering only start and end states

Answer: A

Explanation:
Covering all transitions at least once is the highest coverage criterion for state transition based test cases, because it ensures that every possible change of state is tested at least once. This means that all the events that trigger the transitions, as well as the actions and outputs that result from the transitions, are verified. Covering all transitions at least once also implies covering all states at least once, but not vice versa. Therefore, option D is not the highest coverage criterion. Option C is the lowest coverage criterion, because it only tests the initial and final states of the system or component, without checking the intermediate states or transitions.
Option A is incorrect, because the coverage criteria for state transition based test cases can be determined and compared based on the number of transitions and states covered. References = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section
4.2.3, page 49-50.


NEW QUESTION # 227
Consider the following list of activities (I to V):
I. Test design
II. Test planning
III. Review test basis
IV. Be a facilitator of a peer review
V. Test monitoring and control
Which ONE of the following options identifies the activities that the test management role is MAINLY focused on?

  • A. Activities I, III, and IV
  • B. Activities II and V
  • C. Activities I and V
  • D. Activities III, IV, and V

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Test management focuses on planning and control activities. Test planning (II) involves defining test strategies, schedules, and resources, while test monitoring and control (V) ensures that testing activities are aligned with objectives and tracked effectively. Other activities, such as test design (I) and peer review facilitation (IV), are typically handled by testers or test leads.


NEW QUESTION # 228
A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive). Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?

  • A. 999.100000
  • B. 999.1000.23232.99999.100000
  • C. 1000,50000,99999
  • D. 999.1000.50000.100000.100001

Answer: D

Explanation:
A correct list of boundary values for the P input should include the minimum and maximum values of the valid range (15 and 350), as well as the values just below and above the boundaries (14 and 351). Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that involves testing the values at or near the boundaries of an input domain or output range, as these values are more likely to cause errors than values in the middle. Option B satisfies this condition, as it has all four boundary values (14, 15, 350, 351). Option A has two values from the same equivalence class (1000 and 99999), option C has two values outside the range (999 and 100000), and option D has no boundary values at all. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level
2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 34.


NEW QUESTION # 229
Consider the following table, which contains information about test cases from the test management system:

Which ONE of the following optionsorganizes the test cases based on the statement coverage strategy, while considering practical constraints?

  • A. {TC 80; TC 70; TC 50; TC 60; TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 90}
  • B. {TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 50; TC 70; TC 60; TC 80; TC 90}
  • C. {TC 10; TC 30; TC 20; TC 60; TC 40; TC 80; TC 90; TC 50; TC 70}
  • D. {TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20}

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Statement coverage strategyprioritizestest cases with higher statement coverage first, whileresolving dependenciesbefore execution.
* TC60 (7%)has thehighest coveragebutdepends on REQ 1, so it should be executedafter its dependency is covered.
* TC80 (6%)depends onREQ 2, so it should be prioritizedafter TC40 (REQ 2).
* TC40 (5%)andTC90 (5%)should be executed early.
* Lower coverage test cases (TC10, TC70, TC30, TC20) should come last.
Thus, the correct order is{TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20} (D).


NEW QUESTION # 230
Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?

  • A. Test environment details
  • B. How to reproduce the defect
  • C. Seventy and priority
  • D. How to fix the defect

Answer: D

Explanation:
A defect report is a document that records the details of a defect found during testing. A defect report typically contains the following items:
* Identifier: A unique identifier for the defect report
* Summary: A concise summary of the defect
* Description: A detailed description of the defect, including the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, and any relevant screenshots or logs
* Severity: The degree of impact that the defect has on the system
* Priority: The level of urgency for resolving the defect
* Status: The current state of the defect, such as new, open, resolved, closed, etc.
* Resolution: The action taken to resolve the defect, such as fix, workaround, reject, etc. Out of these items, the one that is not needed to specify in a defect report is how to fix the defect. How to fix the defect is a technical solution that is usually determined by the developer who is assigned to resolve the defect. How to fix the defect is not part of the defect report, but rather part of the code change or patch that is delivered to fix the defect. The other items are needed to specify in a defect report, as they provide essential information for identifying, tracking and resolving defects. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 32-33.


NEW QUESTION # 231
......

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